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Question : The value of $\frac{1}{(p-n)(n-q)}+\frac{1}{(n-q)(q-p)}+\frac{1}{(q-p)(p-n)}$ is:

Option 1: $1$

Option 2: $0$

Option 3: $p + q + n$

Option 4: $\frac{2n}{p+q}$


Team Careers360 14th Jan, 2024
Answer (1)
Team Careers360 25th Jan, 2024

Correct Answer: $0$


Solution : Given:
$\frac{1}{(p-n)(n-q)}+\frac{1}{(n-q)(q-p)}+\frac{1}{(q-p)(p-n)}$
= $\frac{q-p+p-n+n-q}{(p-n)(n-q)(q-p)}$
= $0$
Hence, the correct answer is 0.

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