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What will happen if a same inverse trigonometric function is inside a inverse trigonometric function sin⁻¹(sin⁻¹(x)) like that ?


PRADEEP KUMAR 13th Jan, 2022
Answer (1)
PRADEEP KUMAR 13th Jan, 2022

sin⁻¹(sin⁻¹(x)) is equal to x and this true for all the inverse trigonometric function


sin⁻¹(sin⁻¹(x)) = x


cos⁻¹(cos⁻¹(x))= x


tan⁻¹(tan⁻¹(x))=x


cot⁻¹(cot⁻¹(x))=x


cosec⁻¹(cosec⁻¹(x))=x


sec⁻¹(sec⁻¹(x))= x

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