Question : The value of $\frac{40-\frac{3}{4} \text { of } 32}{37-\frac{3}{4} \text { of }(34-6)}$ is:
Option 1: $\frac{1}{2}$
Option 2: $1$
Option 3: $-\frac{1}{2}$
Option 4: $0$
Answer (1)
22nd Jan, 2024
Correct Answer: $1$
Solution :
$\frac{40-\frac{3}{4} \text { of } 32}{37-\frac{3}{4} \text { of }(34-6)}$
$=\frac{40-\frac{3}{4} \text { of } 32}{37-\frac{3}{4} \text { of }28}$
$=\frac{40-24}{37-21}$
$=\frac{16}{16}$
$=1$
Hence, the correct answer is $1$.
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