Question : The value of $\frac{40-\frac{3}{4} \text { of } 32}{37-\frac{3}{4} \text { of }(34-6)}$ is:
Option 1: $\frac{1}{2}$
Option 2: $1$
Option 3: $-\frac{1}{2}$
Option 4: $0$
Correct Answer: $1$
Solution : $\frac{40-\frac{3}{4} \text { of } 32}{37-\frac{3}{4} \text { of }(34-6)}$ $=\frac{40-\frac{3}{4} \text { of } 32}{37-\frac{3}{4} \text { of }28}$ $=\frac{40-24}{37-21}$ $=\frac{16}{16}$ $=1$ Hence, the correct answer is $1$.
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